So... Can someone with bio/genetic/epidemiology background explain this to me? Are her claims valid? The criticism to this paper seems to be that the genetic variation is only 5% but isn't that large in genetic terms?

Hello everydual, I'm currently a 4th year student. My interests are mathematical/computational neuroscience and philosophy (thinking of pursuing a PhD/MSc on mathematical modelling). This instance looks fairly interesting. I look forward to meeting cool smart people. Other notable topics of interest: GNU/Linux (Ubuntu/Kali/Mint), FOSS/H, Python, Rust, LatAm history/politics.

Random fact: this is my favorite picture

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