I'm currently learning Spanish, and I've noticed something very strange. In English, we use the verb "to have" for both possessions and obligations. Compare "I have three fruits" versus "I have to do homework tonight".
In Spanish, the former usage translates as "to have" = "tener". But what's weird is, the latter usage ALSO translates as "to have to do X" = "tener que X".
Why would that be? I always thought that this alternate usage of "to have" in English was a strange idiosyncratic thing that had nothing to do with the word's first meaning, but apparently Spanish does it the exact same way. Do both usages derive from a parent language?
I'm considering looking into them and writing up a blog post introduction. I might also look into Eliezer Yudkowski's Timeless Decision Theory, which I don't currently understand but which I think would be fun to read and write about.
Author of the Questions & Daylight blog: questionsanddaylight.com