is this true? by the looks of it, i think KM had the wrong use of differentials/infinitesimals and might run short of viewing differential calculus in terms of rigorous definitions of limits and it won't be simple as that that is, it cannot be simply thinking a 0 over there and 0 under there and infer a contradiction! (if KM did ever use those lines of arguments against DC or trying to reformulate DC? pls don't accuse me of trying to defend KM by casting doubt whether he did actually write those arguments) we only have to note the initial experimental success of DC (of Newton and Leibniz) when Newton used it to find out that planets moved in elliptical orbits
https://twitter.com/DenkenAnalysis/status/1673868534424666114