> is it? Here’s the study (linked below). It’s a meta-analysis from earlier in the pandemic, which looked at studies that included hospitalized and ambulatory patients.
Yes that is what the study is on. In other words.
> The study concludes jn multiple places that 80% of people with COVID will experience one or more long-term symptoms.
No that is NOT what the study concluded. The Study concluded that Of people who have severe COVID, to the point of hospitalization, those people have an 80% chance of showing long term symptoms.
What it is NOT saying is that 80% of people who get COVID will have long term symptoms. These are two entierly different assertions.
You are trying to generealize a statement specifically made about hospitalized patients to apply to everyone who has ever had the disease. That is disinformation or negligence, im not sure which. You should have been taught better in school than to make that leap.
> Do I think that’s representative? No. Is it what the study says, yes.
Then you are wrong and it is negligence, that is very much **not** what the study says.
And did you read the part where they said that among studies that included all covid patients the range was up 10% to 35%.. they explicitly state the 80% was only limited to the hospitalized group.
So again, saying people with covid show up to 80% prevelance is disinformation.
I quoted this earlier do I need to go find it again?