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Why the p-norms $p{=}1$, $p{=}2$ and $p{=}\infty$ are so special? An answer based on spatial uniformity https://arxiv.org/abs/2411.13567 #math.ST #math.NA #stat.TH #cs.CR #cs.NA

Why the p-norms $p{=}1$, $p{=}2$ and $p{=}\infty$ are so special? An answer based on spatial uniformity

Among all metrics based on p-norms, the Manhattan (p=1), euclidean (p=2) and Chebyshev distances (p=infinity) are the most widely used for their interpretability, simplicity and technical convenience. But these are not the only arguments for the ubiquity of these three p-norms. This article proves that there is a volume-surface correspondence property that is unique to them. More precisely, it is shown that sampling uniformly from the volume of an n-dimensional p-ball and projecting to its surface is equivalent to directly sampling uniformly from its surface if and only if p is 1, 2 or infinity. Sampling algorithms and their implementations in Python are also provided.

arXiv.org
November 23, 2024 at 3:20 AM · · feed2toot · 0 · 2 · 0
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