@freemo
I'd presume more people will be able to read (1). Maybe a German bias though.
@ultem @freemo (1) is definitely more readable for Germans, (2) is more readable for French
@freemo @ultem (1) is Germanic handwriting, (2) is Latin handwriting

@thomate

While I have no doubt germns tend to use #1 I'm a bit skeptical if #2 is associated strictly with romance languages. In terms of scripts as far as I know #2 is rooted in Roman scripts, form #1 is more common among Gothic scrips.

@ultem

@freemo @ultem Uhm, isn't that kind of what I said? Germanic handwriting tends to descend from Gothic script, Latin from Latin script.
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@thomate

Well I'm not sure really. My point is the latin scripts seem to be a mix of both. It is only when gothic and roman scripts differentiated we saw a clear division. So the point im correcting on is that it isnt latin based scripts that use the capital A form but rather the Roman basesd scripts.

I just cant speak for what languages use gothic scripts, you might be right there and its limited to germanic countries.

@ultem

@freemo @thomate
I did not follow your entire conversation, but please have three German cursives

(1) Kurrent (variants from 1500-1900)
(2) Sütterlin (taught in schools 1915-1941)
(3) Vereinfachte Ausgangsschrift (1969 developed, taught since then in some states)

Notice how the A changes to match the Latin.
@freemo
In Western Europe, where there's not many language groups, I think the distinction is Germanic/Romance languages for the different scripts. And Celtic script and handwriting is in another group altogether.
@ultem

@thomate

Fair, in the modern day germanic vs romance languages would be the major division we tend to see. Well at least for western languages, the east is its own thing entierly.

@ultem

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