There's an interesting piece suggesting that a classification type body might be engaging in puritanical type censorship in Germany.
I always found it suspicious when someone presumed it was something in the criminal code because the language in the criminal code didn't seem to suggest that.
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This is the risk in giving these bureaucratic type bodies too much power.
A good question to ask might be "Which statute?"
Of course, the language in the criminal code could be better in order to better protect human rights.