I'm currently learning Spanish, and I've noticed something very strange. In English, we use the verb "to have" for both possessions and obligations. Compare "I have three fruits" versus "I have to do homework tonight".
In Spanish, the former usage translates as "to have" = "tener". But what's weird is, the latter usage ALSO translates as "to have to do X" = "tener que X".
Why would that be? I always thought that this alternate usage of "to have" in English was a strange idiosyncratic thing that had nothing to do with the word's first meaning, but apparently Spanish does it the exact same way. Do both usages derive from a parent language?
@sunny_qad Maybe a reason is that both verbs are auxiliary, so they are special.
I will be likely wrong, but I have seen that many times those similarities between English and latin-derived languages come from the French influence over the first.
@aluaces That makes me wonder if French has something similar. Do you know? And/or does anyone reading this thread know?