Derek Chauvin (The murderer of #GeorgeFloyd) has just officially been convicted of murder by the grand jury, finally justice!
@ChristiJunior LAWL, ok buddy.. i mean the dude was literally caught red handed murdering someone.. The guy was dead (or at least unconscious) and the man continued to strangle him for another 4 minutes and physically stopped other cops from checking on his safety... There is no sane reason anyone could side witht he cop on this.
@coolboymew
Who said anything about relaxing. Once he was immobile you cuff his feet and hands, no relaxing needed. There is no excuse for strangling a man for 4 minutes after he is unconscious.
@ChristiJunior
@coolboymew
They were, but they were also completely docile until he literally died then one dude started creeping up but immediately backed down. Either way its not a free ticket to kill someone or denying other cops the right ti check on his safety. Once he was unconscious him continuing to strangle him was obvious intent to murder.
@ChristiJunior
@coolboymew
I never denied that. Does t change the fact the Chauvin continued to sit on his neck even after he was told he had no pulse... No other evidence of any kind makes hi. I. Ocent when thst fact is true.
@Bubbul @ChristiJunior
@Nudhul
It makes sense because they are served simultaneously so they dont actually represent additional penalties. It is common practice to do this incase the stronger charge doesnt stick.
@Bubbul @ChristiJunior @coolboymew
@Nudhul
They arent contradictory. One is second degree murser the other is 3rd degree. Literally a lesser form of the other.
@Bubbul @ChristiJunior @coolboymew
@Nudhul
I am well aware.. he wanted to kill the man but he didnt plan it before hand (second degree) and in doing so he acted neglegently (third degree). This isnt rocket science.
@Nudhul
Not what i said, nor is it what 3rd degree means in context. 3rd degree is not exclusionary of second degree. 3rd degree only suggests the action was negligent, it does not require that negligence to be unintentional.
Anyone convinced guilty of second degree is always automatically guilty of third degree, though you cant always try someone for both at the same time, that depends on the state, but guilt of one always implies guilt in a lesser degree.
Incorrect, the legal definition of negligence makes no assumptions about i tent. This is the legal definition:
A failure to behave with the level of care that someone of ordinary prudence would have exercised under the same circumstances. The behavior usually consists of actions, but can also consist of omissions when there is some duty to act (e.g., a duty to help victims of one's previous conduct).
@Nudhul
I doubt you would thing anything disproves your point honestly.
@Bubbul @ChristiJunior @coolboymew
@Nudhul
I mean the legal definition is rather clear. I just cant make you not stupid so you can understand.
@Bubbul @ChristiJunior @coolboymew
The legal definition is clear, and courts have for a very long time interpreted it exactly as I stated. You have offered no counter evidence from a legal standpoint, just a constant stream of childish insults. So yes i have the right.
I could have swore your first comments on the thread were personal attacks, but now I cant find it. So I may have mistaken you for someone else. If that is the case then your right, and I apologize the personal attack was not deserved
Already posted the **legal** definition of neglegance and i will repeat it here:
A failure to behave with the level of care that someone of ordinary prudence would have exercised under the same circumstances. The behavior usually consists of actions, but can also consist of omissions when there is some duty to act (e.g., a duty to help victims of one's previous conduct).
As you can clear see negligence does not imply in the definition that it is unintentional.
You can find the legal definition here with direct links citing official resources to back up the definition:
You are trying to apply a common definition of negligence as the technical legal one, they are not the same. There are very specific legal tests for negligence and none of them have anything to do with intent. Legal words do not follow the same rules as common english.
You can see the legal definition I gave earlier along with a great deal more detail in this link which explains the legal tests one uses to determine if something is negligence. You can clearly see the legal definition and legal tests in no way care about intent:
What what about the legal definition requires the **consequence** of the action to be unintended... no where in the legal definition does it state that must be the case.
The test for negligance as stated at the link I shared is the following:
1) the existence of a legal duty that the defendant owed to the plaintiff
2) defendant's breach of that duty
3) plaintiff's sufferance of an injury
4) proof that defendant's breach caused the injury (typically defined through proximate cause)
Can you do those things if you intend for the consequence of your actions? If I intend to kill someone, can i do something that kills someone and satisfy those 4 rules? Obviously the answer is yes.
the mob influencing it or not there is no way you can excuse a man continuing to strangle someone for 3 minutes after it was confirmed his heart stopped.
Irrelevant, after knowing his heart stopped he prevented fellow officers and a registered nurse from recussitating him while he sat on his chest and lifeless bodt for 3 more minutes. Arguing over if you call t strangulation or not doesnt even matter
No, how is his fellow police officer, who identified Floyd as not having a post and suggesting he should try to help him, and Chauvin refusing to let him do CPR on a man with no heartbeat in any way what you just described?